[Mar-2026] ACAMS CCAS DUMPS WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
2026 New Free4Torrent CCAS PDF Recently Updated Questions
NEW QUESTION # 36
An investigations manager at a cryptoasset exchange is developing an AML risk-rating framework for cryptoassets under consideration for support by the exchange. Which criteria is most important for rating the residual AML risk of a particular cryptoasset?
- A. How the cryptoasset will be monitored for unusual activity
- B. The profitability of the cryptoasset for the exchange's business
- C. Whether the blockchain of the asset is public or private
- D. The number of other exchanges that support the cryptoasset
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ability to monitor the cryptoasset for unusual activity directly impacts the residual AML risk, as effective monitoring enables detection and prevention of illicit transactions. Even if a blockchain is public or private (A), or the asset is profitable (B), the lack of proper monitoring mechanisms increases risk. The number of exchanges supporting the asset (D) is less significant than monitoring capability.
AML frameworks and DFSA guidance stress that risk mitigation depends heavily on effective transaction monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 37
A virtual asset service provider (VASP) is using public information on the blockchain to trace a wallet address. Which additional step is necessary to identify the owner or controller of that address?
- A. Obtain further information connecting wallet address to virtual asset transactions.
- B. Review the wallet address information periodically.
- C. Acquire information to connect the wallet address to a natural person.
- D. Screen the wallet address for any historical transaction activity.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Public blockchain data is pseudonymous, meaning wallet addresses alone do not reveal the owner's identity. To identify the natural person controlling the wallet, the VASP must acquire additional information, typically through customer due diligence (CDD) processes or data obtained from exchanges and counterparties, linking the wallet address to an individual.
Periodic review (A), transaction screening (C), and obtaining transactional data (D) support ongoing monitoring but do not alone establish identity.
AML and FATF guidance emphasize that ownership linkage requires collecting identifying information beyond blockchain data to comply with AML regulations.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following are functions of cryptoasset mining? (Select Two.)
- A. Validating transactions on the blockchain
- B. Ensuring the security of the network
- C. Generating new cryptoassets
- D. Optimizing and improving the functionality of the network
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Mining generates new cryptoassets (A) by rewarding miners for solving complex cryptographic puzzles. It also validates transactions on the blockchain (D) by confirming and recording them in blocks, ensuring the integrity of the ledger.
While mining indirectly contributes to network security, the core security mechanisms involve consensus protocols beyond mining alone (B). Optimizing network functionality (C) is usually a development task rather than a mining function.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Misconfigured smart contracts can allow which type of scam to occur?
- A. Ransomware
- B. Rug pull
- C. Phishing
- D. SIM
Answer: B
Explanation:
Misconfigured or poorly designed smart contracts can enable rug pull scams, where developers create fraudulent decentralized finance (DeFi) projects or tokens and then withdraw liquidity or funds abruptly, leaving investors with worthless assets.
Phishing (A) and SIM attacks (B) relate to social engineering and telecom fraud, respectively, and ransomware (D) is malware demanding payment. Rug pulls specifically exploit smart contract vulnerabilities.
The DFSA and AML thematic reviews on crypto highlight rug pull scams as a key operational and financial crime risk linked to smart contract vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 40
What is a "smart contract"?
- A. A legal agreement stored offline.
- B. A self-executing code stored on blockchain.
- C. A compliance monitoring tool.
- D. A cold storage wallet type.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Smart contracts execute predetermined conditions automatically on blockchain, enabling decentralized applications and services.
NEW QUESTION # 41
What three classifications of assets does the Markets in Crypto-Assets Regulation (commonly known as MICA) apply to? (Select Three.)
- A. Cryptoassets
- B. Electronic money tokens
- C. Asset-referenced tokens
- D. Privacy coins
- E. Meme coins
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
The EU's Markets in Crypto-Assets Regulation (MICA) applies specifically to:
Electronic Money Tokens (B): Tokens that fulfill the definition of electronic money under the E-Money Directive.
Cryptoassets (D): Broad category including digital representations of value that are not covered by existing financial services legislation.
Asset-Referenced Tokens (E): Tokens that purport to maintain a stable value by referencing one or several assets.
Meme coins (A) and privacy coins (C) are not separately classified under MICA but may fall under broader cryptoasset categories subject to other regulations.
NEW QUESTION # 42
What is the correct risk assessment equation used in AML/CFT compliance frameworks, including for cryptoasset risk evaluations?
- A. Inherent Risk - Control Effectiveness = Residual Risk
- B. Residual Risk + Control Effectiveness = Inherent Risk
- C. Inherent Risk + Control Effectiveness = Residual Risk
- D. Inherent Risk - Residual Risk = Control Effectiveness
Answer: A
Explanation:
In risk-based AML/CFT programs - including those applied to Virtual Asset Service Providers (VASPs) - risk assessment determines the remaining exposure after applying mitigating measures.
Inherent Risk: The natural level of risk before applying any controls, based on factors like customer profile, transaction patterns, and jurisdiction.
Control Effectiveness: The degree to which implemented controls (e.g., CDD, EDD, sanctions screening, blockchain analytics) reduce risk.
Residual Risk: The risk that remains after controls are applied and is the level an organization must either accept, reduce further, or avoid.
The standard formula is:
Inherent Risk - Control Effectiveness = Residual Risk
This equation is emphasized in FATF's risk-based approach guidance and reinforced in DIFC (DFSA) and ADGM (FSRA) AML rules to ensure ongoing monitoring and governance oversight of remaining risks.
NEW QUESTION # 43
According to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network's Guidance 2019-G0001 pertaining to convertible virtual currencies, a money transmitter includes companies that:
- A. Exchange digital tokens.
- B. Act as payment processors to facilitate the purchase of, or payment of a bill for, a good or service through a clearance and settlement system.
- C. Operate a clearance and settlement system or otherwise act as intermediaries solely between Bank Secrecy Act-regulated institutions.
- D. Provide the delivery, communication, or network access services to only support money transmission services.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The FinCEN 2019 guidance clarifies that money transmitters include entities that exchange digital tokens or convertible virtual currencies as part of their business activities. This includes exchanges and platforms that transfer virtual currencies.
Providing infrastructure services (B), operating clearance systems solely among regulated institutions (C), or acting as payment processors for goods/services (D) without handling value transfer do not fall under the money transmitter definition per this guidance.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which consensus mechanism uses staked tokens to validate transactions instead of computational power?
- A. Proof-of-Stake
- B. Byzantine Fault Tolerance
- C. Proof-of-Work
- D. Delegated Ledger Approval
Answer: A
Explanation:
Proof-of-Stake (PoS) replaces the energy-intensive mining process of Proof-of-Work by allowing validators to secure the network based on the amount of cryptocurrency they "stake" as collateral. Validators are rewarded for correctly validating transactions and risk losing their stake if they act dishonestly. Regulatory AML/CFT programs must consider validator concentration risks and the jurisdictional exposure of validators in PoS systems.
NEW QUESTION # 45
A suspicious activity report was filed in the EU for a local company account that held funds generated by the sale of product coupons. A review of the account highlighted a login from an unconnected IP address. Despite repeated requests, the customer failed to provide information on the origins of the funds. Which is the main red flag here?
- A. An IP address is being used that is not previously connected to that customer.
- B. There is a failure to cooperate with the source of funds requests.
- C. Funds are generated by the sale of coupons which are connected to a physical product.
- D. Virtual asset service providers outside of the EU are being relied upon.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The main red flag is the customer's failure to cooperate with requests to provide information on the origin of funds, which undermines transparency and raises suspicion regarding the legitimacy of the funds.
While an unconnected IP address (D) is suspicious, non-cooperation (C) is a stronger indicator of potential money laundering.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which risk category covers threats from ransomware actors demanding payment in cryptoassets?
- A. Counterparty risk
- B. Liquidity risk
- C. Operational risk
- D. Cyber-enabled financial crime risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ransomware schemes are categorized as cyber-enabled financial crimes. AML/CFT frameworks require that such risks be assessed and mitigated through blockchain analytics, sanctions screening, and transaction monitoring for known ransomware wallet addresses.
NEW QUESTION # 47
How does law enforcement use Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs)? (Select Two.)
- A. To confirm or develop information on existing targets
- B. To produce evidence of money laundering that can be used in court
- C. To identify regulatory failings
- D. To develop intelligence on new targets
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) are a critical tool for law enforcement agencies. They are primarily used to develop intelligence on potential new criminal targets and to confirm or expand information about existing investigations. SARs do not serve as direct evidence of money laundering in court but provide leads and context that enable law enforcement to build cases.
The DFSA's thematic reviews and AML guidance clarify that SARs assist in identifying emerging crime patterns and help intelligence units track suspicious transactions over time. They also allow law enforcement to corroborate data from other sources.
SARs help:
Develop intelligence on new targets (C) by revealing previously unknown suspicious behavior.
Confirm or develop information on existing targets (D) by adding transactional data and context.
Identifying regulatory failings (A) is primarily a supervisory function, and SARs themselves are not evidence for prosecution (B) but intelligence inputs.
Therefore, options C and D are correct.
NEW QUESTION # 48
What methods do criminals use to avoid clustering of crypto wallet addresses?
- A. After receiving a large volume of crypto payments in the wallet, they are left there for a long period of time.
- B. The cryptoassets are moved to the exchange after a large number of hops within a short period of time.
- C. The address receives a large amount of cryptocurrency from another wallet address.
- D. A small portion of cryptoassets is moved to an exchange, and the rest remain in the wallet.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Criminals often move cryptoassets through multiple intermediary wallets (many "hops") rapidly to obfuscate the transaction trail and avoid clustering, which blockchain analytics use to link related addresses.
Simply receiving large amounts (A), holding assets (B), or splitting movements (D) are less effective at preventing clustering.
NEW QUESTION # 49
As per the Financial Action Task Force standards, which activities fall under the definition of a virtual asset service provider? (Select Three.)
- A. Exchange between one or more forms of virtual assets
- B. Participation in and provision of financial services related to an initial public offering
- C. Creation of virtual assets software to issue decentralized managed virtual assets
- D. Participation in and provision of financial services related to an initial coin offering
- E. Exchange between virtual assets and fiat currencies
- F. Operation of a virtual assets mining facility
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
FATF defines VASPs as entities that conduct one or more of the following activities:
Exchanging one or more forms of virtual assets (B),
Providing financial services related to initial coin offerings (ICOs) (C), Exchanging virtual assets for fiat currencies or vice versa (D).
Mining operations (A) and software creation (E) are excluded from the VASP definition as they do not involve financial intermediation. Initial public offerings (IPOs) (F) pertain to traditional securities and are outside the scope of VASP activities.
This definition aligns with FATF Recommendation 15 and DFSA regulatory frameworks.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which business category below is considered to present the highest risk of money laundering?
- A. Pharmaceutical company
- B. Law firm
- C. Art dealer
- D. Registered hedge fund
Answer: C
Explanation:
Art dealers present a high money laundering risk due to the subjective valuation of art, ease of transferring assets, and the potential for using art as a vehicle to conceal illicit funds.
Registered hedge funds (A) and law firms (C) have AML obligations but are generally more regulated. Pharmaceutical companies (B) are less associated with high ML risk.
The DFSA AML and FATF typology papers specifically identify art dealing as a sector with heightened ML risk.
NEW QUESTION # 51
What Is the purpose of applying learning (ML) or artificial Intelligence (Al) within a compliance framework? (Select two.)
- A. To reduce the requirement for risk assessment
- B. To enhance efficiency
- C. To focus skilled resource on higher value activity
- D. To reduce headcount
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Machine learning (ML) and artificial intelligence (AI) are applied within compliance frameworks to enhance the efficiency of monitoring and detection processes and to allow skilled compliance resources to focus on higher-value activities such as complex investigations and strategic decision-making. ML/AI tools can process vast amounts of transaction data to identify suspicious patterns faster than manual processes.
They do not reduce the fundamental requirement for risk assessment (A) nor are they intended primarily to reduce headcount (C), but rather to optimize resource allocation.
AML and DFSA guidance emphasize leveraging technology to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of AML controls while maintaining robust risk management.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which is the discipline of risk management related to the risk of algorithms, machine learning, and artificial intelligence within the transaction monitoring and screening software that a virtual asset service provider acquires from a vendor?
- A. IT security risk management
- B. Operational risk management
- C. Vendor risk management
- D. Model risk management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Model risk management is the discipline focused on managing risks arising from the use of models, including those based on algorithms, machine learning, and AI in transaction monitoring and screening software.
DFSA and global AML frameworks highlight the need for strong model risk governance to ensure accurate detection and compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A politically exposed person (PEP) opens a crypto account. What is the required action?
- A. Treat as standard customer.
- B. Decline onboarding.
- C. Request a travel rule exemption.
- D. Apply EDD and senior management approval.
Answer: D
Explanation:
PEPs require enhanced scrutiny under FATF Recommendation 12, including senior management approval and source of funds verification.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A firm using blockchain analytics finds an address that sent funds through multiple hops before reaching a darknet market wallet. This is an example of:
- A. Direct exposure
- B. Mixing
- C. Indirect exposure
- D. Transaction batching
Answer: C
Explanation:
Indirect exposure occurs when funds pass through one or more intermediary wallets before reaching a known illicit destination. This requires enhanced monitoring to capture risks that are not directly linked but are part of the transaction chain.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which cryptoasset type is most associated with anonymity risk?
- A. Privacy coin
- B. Governance token
- C. Stablecoin
- D. Security token
Answer: A
Explanation:
Privacy coins like Monero use cryptographic features to obscure transaction details, increasing AML risk and regulatory scrutiny.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Under DIFC AML regulations, enhanced due diligence (EDD) is mandatory when:
- A. A customer is a domestic bank.
- B. The transaction is above USD 1,000.
- C. The customer is from a high-risk jurisdiction.
- D. The customer is a retail investor.
Answer: C
Explanation:
EDD is required when dealing with customers or transactions from jurisdictions identified as high-risk for ML/TF. This aligns with FATF Recommendation 19 and local UAE regulations.
NEW QUESTION # 57
The Financial Action Task Force recommends countries require virtual asset service providers to maintain all records of transactions and customer due diligence measures for a minimum of:
- A. 7 years
- B. 2 years
- C. 6 months
- D. 5 years
Answer: D
Explanation:
FATF standards specify that Virtual Asset Service Providers (VASPs) must keep records related to transactions and customer due diligence for at least 5 years after the completion of the transaction or end of the business relationship. This retention period facilitates effective AML investigations and regulatory reviews.
DFSA AML Module aligns with this timeframe, reinforcing that comprehensive record retention supports audit trails and compliance verification.
NEW QUESTION # 58
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