[Nov 15, 2021] New Real 312-38 Exam Dumps Questions
Pass Your 312-38 Exam Easily with Accurate EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND PDF Questions
Career Opportunities
The EC-Council 312-38 exam equips the professionals with the fundamental knowledge and skills in networking concepts. Without a doubt, earning the Certified Network Defender certification has a lucrative career outlook. Some of the positions that the certified individuals can consider include IT Administrators, Network Technicians, Data Analysts, Network Administrators, and Network Engineers, among others. The average remuneration for these titles is $94,000 per annum.
Prerequisites
The potential candidates must fulfill one of two options of eligibility criteria for this certification exam. The first thing is to complete the official training course, which can be taken as instructor-led training, academic learning, or online live training. The second variant is to opt for self-study. However, those who want to consider this option must have a minimum of two years of practical work experience in the domain of Information Technology. They should also have educational background that indicates a specialization in this area. To demonstrate this, they must submit a filled eligibility application form and pay the non-refundable application fee of $100.
Before you start the registration process, you should check if you qualify as one of the target audiences for this path. The intended candidates for EC-Council 312-38 are the security operators, network administrators, security analysts, network defense technicians, network security engineers, network security administrators, as well as any professionals who work with network operations.
Understanding functional and technical aspects of Certified Network Defender Business Principles and Practices
The following will be discussed in ECCOUNCIL EC 312-38 dumps:
- Discuss Security Guidelines, recommendations and best practices for Containers
- Discuss Security Measures for IoT-enabled Environments
- Discuss Windows OS Security Hardening Techniques
- Discuss the implementation of Encryption of âData at transitâ in Email Delivery
- Discus OS Virtualization Security
- Discuss Security guidelines and tools for iOS devices
- Discuss the implementation of Encryption of âData at transitâ between browser and web server
- Discuss Windows security baseline configurations
- Discuss Network Function Virtualization (NFV) Security
- Discuss Security Guidelines, recommendations and best practices for Dockers
- Discuss Data Masking ConceptsDiscuss data backup and retention
- Discuss Security Guidelines, recommendations and best practices for Kubernetes
- Discuss Windows Active Directory Security Best Practices
- Discuss User Access Management
- Discuss Windows Patch Management
- Discuss IoT Security Tools and Best Practices
- Understand Security Challenges and risks associated with IoT-enabled environments
- Discuss the implementation of Encryption of âData at transitâ between database server and web server
- Discuss security guidelines to mitigate risk associated with enterprise mobile usage policies
- Discuss the security in IoT-enabled Environments
- Discuss Security guidelines and tools for Android devices
- Understand IoT Ecosystem and Communication models
- Discuss Common Mobile Usage Policies in Enterprises
- Discuss Windows User Account and Password Management
- Discuss Windows Security Components
- Discuss Windows Network Services and Protocol Security
- Data Loss Prevention(DLP) Concepts Understand Virtualization Essential Concepts
- Discuss Various Windows Security Features
- Discuss the implementation of encryption of âData at restâ
- Discuss and implement various enterprise-level mobile security management Solutions
- Discuss Software-Defined Network (SDN) Security
- Understand IoT Devices, their need, and Application Areas
- Discuss the implementation of data access controls
- Discuss Data Destruction Concepts
- Discuss and implement general security guidelines and best practices on Mobile platforms
- Understand Data Security and its Importance
NEW QUESTION 13
If a network is at risk resulting from misconfiguration performed by unskilled and/or unqualified individuals, what type of threat is this?
- A. Structured Threats
- B. Internal Threats
- C. External Threats
- D. Unstructured Threats
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 14
John works as an Incident manager for TechWorld Inc. His task is to set up a wireless network for his organization. For this, he needs to decide the appropriate devices and policies required to set up the network. Which of the following phases of the incident handling process will help him accomplish the task?
- A. Containment
- B. Preparation
- C. Eradication
- D. Recovery
Answer: B
Explanation:
Preparation is the first step in the incident handling process. It includes processes like backing up copies of all key data on a regular basis, monitoring and updating software on a regular basis, and creating and implementing a documented security policy. To apply this step a documented security policy is formulated that outlines the responses to various incidents, as a reliable set of instructions during the time of an incident. The following list contains items that the incident handler should maintain in the preparation phase i.e. before an incident occurs: Establish applicable policies Build relationships with key players Build response kit Create incident checklists Establish communication plan Perform threat modeling Build an incident response team Practice the demo incidents Answer option A is incorrect. The Containment phase of the Incident handling process is responsible for supporting and building up the incident combating process. It ensures the stability of the system and also confirms that the incident does not get any worse. The Containment phase includes the process of preventing further contamination of the system or network, and preserving the evidence of the contamination. Answer option D is incorrect. The Eradication phase of the Incident handling process involves the cleaning-up of the identified harmful incidents from the system. It includes the analyzing of the information that has been gathered for determining how the attack was committed. To prevent the incident from happening again, it is vital to recognize how it was conceded out so that a prevention technique is applied. Answer option B is incorrect. Recovery is the fifth step of the incident handling process. In this phase, the Incident Handler places the system back into the working environment. In the recovery phase the Incident Handler also works with the questions to validate that the system recovery is successful. This involves testing the system to make sure that all the processes and functions are working normal. The Incident Handler also monitors the system to make sure that the systems are not compromised again. It looks for additional signs of attack.
NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following is also known as slag code?
- A. Trojan
- B. Worm
- C. IRC bot
- D. Logic bomb
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 16
Identify the password cracking attempt involving precomputed hash values stored as plaintext and using these to crack the password.
- A. Hybrid
- B. Rainbow table
- C. Bruteforce
- D. Dictionary
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 17
CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
A ______________ is a term in computer terminology used for a trap that is set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at unauthorized use of information systems.
Answer:
Explanation:
honeypot
Explanation:
A honeypot is a term in computer terminology used for a trap that is set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at unauthorized use of information systems. Generally it consists of a computer, data, or a network site that appears to be part of a network, but is actually isolated, and monitored, and which seems to contain information or a resource of value to attackers.
NEW QUESTION 18
Ross manages 30 employees and only 25 computers in the organization. The network the company uses is a peer-to-peer. Ross configures access control measures allowing the employees to set their own control measures for their files and folders. Which access control did Ross implement?
- A. Role-based access control
- B. Discretionary access control
- C. Mandatory access control
- D. Non-discretionary access control
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 19
Which of the following is a service discovery protocol that allows computers and other devices to find services in a local area network without prior configuration?
- A. NTP
- B. DCAP
- C. SLP
- D. NNTP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Service Location Protocol (SLP, srvloc) is a service discovery protocol that allows computers and other devices to find services in a local area network without prior configuration. SLP has been designed to scale from small, unmanaged networks to large enterprise networks. Answer option C is incorrect. The Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP) is an Internet application protocol used for transporting Usenet news articles (netnews) between news servers and for reading and posting articles by end user client applications. NNTP is designed so that news articles are stored in a central database, allowing the subscriber to select only those items that he wants to read. Answer option A is incorrect. Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the timekeeping among the number of distributed time servers and clients. It is used for the time management in a large and diverse network that contains many interfaces. In this protocol, servers define the time, and clients have to be synchronized with the defined time. These clients can choose the most reliable source of time defined from the several NTP servers for their information transmission. Answer option D is incorrect. The Data Link Switching Client Access Protocol (DCAP) is an application layer protocol that is used between workstations and routers for transporting SNA/NetBIOS traffic over TCP sessions. It was introduced in order to address a few deficiencies by the Data Link Switching Protocol (DLSw). The DLSw raises the important issues of scalability and efficiency, and since DLSw is a switch-to-switch protocol, it is not efficient when implemented on workstations. DCAP was introduced in order to address these issues.
NEW QUESTION 20
Which of the following is a firewall that keeps track of the state of network connections traveling across it?
- A. Stateful firewall
- B. Circuit-level proxy firewall
- C. Stateless packet filter firewall
- D. Application gateway firewall
Answer: A
Explanation:
A stateful firewall is a firewall that keeps track of the state of network connections (such as TCP streams, UDP communication) traveling across it. The firewall is programmed to distinguish legitimate packets for different types of connections. Only packets matching a known connection state will be allowed by the firewall; others will be rejected. Answer option B is incorrect. A stateless packet filter firewall allows direct connections from the external network to hosts on the internal network and is included with router configuration software or with Open Source operating systems.
Answer option C is incorrect. It applies security mechanisms when a TCP or UDP connection is established.
Answer option D is incorrect. An application gateway firewall applies security mechanisms to specific applications, such as FTP and Telnet servers.
NEW QUESTION 21
Which of the following IP class addresses are not allotted to hosts? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Class B
- B. Class E
- C. Class A
- D. Class D
- E. Class C
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Class addresses D and E are not allotted to hosts. Class D addresses are reserved for multicasting, and their address range can extend from 224 to 239. Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes. Their addresses range from 240 to 254.
Answer option A is incorrect. Class A addresses are specified for large networks. It consists of up to
16,777,214 client devices (hosts), and their address range can extend from 1 to 126.
Answer option B is incorrect. Class B addresses are specified for medium size networks. It consists of up to
65,534 client devices, and their address range can extend from 128 to 191.
Answer option E is incorrect. Class C addresses are specified for small local area networks (LANs). It consists of up to 245 client devices, and their address range can extend from 192 to 223.
NEW QUESTION 22
Which of the following standards is a proposed enhancement to the 802.11a and 802.11b wireless LAN (WLAN) specifications that offers quality of service (QoS) features, including the prioritization of data, voice, and video transmissions?
- A. 802.11h
- B. 802.11e
- C. 802.11n
- D. 802.15
Answer: B
Explanation:
The 802.11e standard is a proposed enhancement to the 802.11a and 802.11b wireless LAN (WLAN) specifications. It offers quality of service (QoS) features, including the prioritization of data, voice, and video transmissions. 802.11e enhances the 802.11 Media Access Control layer (MAC layer) with a coordinated time division multiple access (TDMA) construct, and adds error-correcting mechanisms for delay-sensitive applications such as voice and video. Answer option D is incorrect. 802.11h refers to the amendment added to the IEEE 802.11 standard for Spectrum and Transmit Power Management Extensions. Answer option B is incorrect. 802.11n is an amendment to the IEEE 802.11-2007 wireless networking standard to improve network throughput over the two previous standards - 802.11a and 802.11g - with a significant increase in the maximum raw data rate from 54 Mbit/s to 600 Mbit/s with the use of four spatial streams at a channel width of 40 MHz. Answer option A is incorrect. IEEE 802.15 is a working group of the IEEE 802 and specializes in Wireless PAN (Personal Area Network) standards. It includes seven task groups, which are as follows: 1.Task group 1 (WPAN/Bluetooth) 2.Task group 2 (Coexistence) 3.Task group 3 (High Rate WPAN) 4.Task group 4 (Low Rate WPAN) 5.Task group 5 (Mesh Networking) 6.Task Group 6 (BAN) 7.Task group 7 (VLC)
NEW QUESTION 23
To provide optimum security while enabling safe/necessary services, blocking known dangerous services, and making employees accountable for their online activity, what Internet Access policy would Brian, the network administrator, have to choose?
- A. Permissive policy
- B. Promiscuous policy
- C. Prudent policy
- D. Paranoid policy
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 24
Which of the following statements are TRUE about Demilitarized zone (DMZ)? Each correct answer represents
a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to the Local Area Network of an
organization. - B. Hosts in the DMZ have full connectivity to specific hosts in the internal network.
- C. In a DMZ configuration, most computers on the LAN run behind a firewall connected to a public network
like the Internet. - D. Demilitarized zone is a physical or logical sub-network that contains and exposes external services of an
organization to a larger un-trusted network.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes external services of
an organization to a larger network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of
security to an organization's Local Area Network (LAN); an external attacker only has access to equipment in
the DMZ, rather than the whole of the network. Hosts in the DMZ have limited connectivity to specific hosts in
the internal network, though communication with other hosts in the DMZ and to the external network is allowed.
This allows hosts in the DMZ to provide services to both the internal and external networks, while an
intervening firewall controls the traffic between the DMZ servers and the internal network clients. In a DMZ
configuration, most computers on the LAN run behind a firewall connected to a public network such as the
Internet.
NEW QUESTION 25
Stephanie is currently setting up email security so all company data is secured when passed through email. Stephanie first sets up encryption to make sure that a specific user's email is protected. Next, she needs to ensure that the incoming and the outgoing mail has not been modified or altered using digital signatures. What is Stephanie working on?
- A. Data Integrity
- B. Availability
- C. Confidentiality
- D. Usability
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 26
Adam, a malicious hacker, has just succeeded in stealing a secure cookie via a XSS attack. He is able to replay the cookie even while the session is valid on the server. Which of the following is the most likely reason of this cause?
- A. Encryption is performed at the application layer (single encryption key).
- B. Two way encryption is applied.
- C. No encryption is applied.
- D. Encryption is performed at the network layer (layer 1 encryption).
Answer: A
Explanation:
Single key encryption uses a single word or phrase as the key. The same key is used by the sender to encrypt and the receiver to decrypt. Sender and receiver initially need to have a secure way of passing the key from one to the other. With TLS or SSL this would not be possible. Symmetric encryption is a type of encryption that uses a single key to encrypt and decrypt data. Symmetric encryption algorithms are faster than public key encryption. Therefore, it is commonly used when a message sender needs to encrypt a large amount of data. Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses the symmetric encryption key algorithm to encrypt data.
NEW QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a free security-auditing tool for Linux?
- A. Nessus
- B. SATAN
- C. SAINT
- D. HPing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 28
FILL BLANK
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ______________is a powerful and low-interaction open source
honeypot.
Answer:
Explanation:
Honeyd
Explanation:
Honeyd is a powerful and low-interaction open source honeypot. It was released by Niels Provos in 2002. It
was written in C and designed for Unix platforms. It introduced a variety of new concepts, including the ability to
monitor millions of unused IPs, IP stack spoofing, etc. It can also simulate hundreds of operating systems and
monitor all UDP and TCP-based ports.
NEW QUESTION 29
In which of the following attacks does an attacker successfully insert an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts?
- A. Man-in-the-middle
- B. Buffer overflow
- C. Denial-of-Service
- D. Session hijacking
Answer: A
Explanation:
Man-in-the-middle attacks occur when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts. The intermediary software or program allows attackers to listen to and modify the communication packets passing between the two hosts. The software intercepts the communication packets and then sends the information to the receiving host. The receiving host responds to the software, presuming it to be the legitimate client.
Answer option B is incorrect. A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is mounted with the objective of causing a negative impact on the performance of a computer or network. It is also known as a network saturation attack or bandwidth consumption attack. Attackers perform DoS attacks by sending a large number of protocol packets to the network. The effects of a DoS attack are as follows:
Saturates network resources
Disrupts connections between two computers, thereby preventing communications between services Disrupts services to a specific computer Causes failure to access a Web site Results in an increase in the amount of spam A Denial-of-Service attack is very common on the Internet because it is much easier to accomplish. Most of the DoS attacks rely on the weaknesses in the TCP/IP protocol.
Answer option D is incorrect. A buffer-overflow attack is performed when a hacker fills a field, typically an address bar, with more characters than it can accommodate. The excess characters can be run as executable code, effectively giving the hacker control of the computer and overriding any security measures set. There are two main types of buffer overflow attacks:
stack-based buffer overflow attack:
Stack-based buffer overflow attack uses a memory object known as a stack. The hacker develops the code which reserves a specific amount of space for the stack. If the input of user is longer than the amount of space reserved for it within the stack, then the stack will overflow.
heap-based buffer overflow attack:
Heap-based overflow attack floods the memory space reserved for the programs.
Answer option A is incorrect. Session hijacking refers to the exploitation of a valid computer session to gain unauthorized access to information or services in a computer system. In particular, it is used to refer to the theft of a magic cookie used to authenticate a user to a remote server. It has particular relevance to Web developers, as the HTTP cookies used to maintain a session on many Web sites can be easily stolen by an attacker using an intermediary computer or with access to the saved cookies on the victim's computer (see HTTP cookie theft).
TCP session hijacking is when a hacker takes over a TCP session between two machines. Since most authentication only occurs at the start of a TCP session, this allows the hacker to gain access to a machine.
NEW QUESTION 30
What is the location of honeypot on a network?
- A. DMZ
- B. Honeyfarm
- C. Hub
- D. Honeynet
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 31
Which of the following provide an "always on" Internet access service when connecting to an ISP? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
- A. Digital modem
- B. DSL
- C. Analog modem
- D. Cable modem
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
DSL and Cable modems are used in remote-access WAN technology for connecting to the Internet. Both
provide an "always on" Internet access service.
Answer options C and A are incorrect. Analog and Digital modems are not always in 'ON' mode when
connecting to an ISP. Analog modems transmit analog voice signals, while Digital modems transmit digital
signals over a link.
NEW QUESTION 32
......
Updated 312-38 Exam Practice Test Questions: https://braindumps.free4torrent.com/312-38-valid-dumps-torrent.html