Reliable AAVSB Certification VTNE Dumps PDF Aug 19, 2026 Recently Updated Questions
Pass Your AAVSB VTNE Exam with Correct 1310 Questions and Answers
NEW QUESTION # 220
What is the term used to describe a post-operative patient with increased anxiety, unease, abnormal behavior, or agitation?
- A. Euphoria
- B. Dysphoria
- C. Allodynia
- D. Elation
Answer: B
Explanation:
In veterinary patients, dysphoric behaviors include anxiety, vocalization, restlessness, and, potentially, self-mutilation. Patients may appear to be in pain but become worse with added pain medication. These behaviors are frequently exhibited in the minutes following general anesthetic recovery and can last several hours. Dysphoria is not secondary to pain, nor is it secondary to the anesthesia itself. Dysphoria, pain, and anesthesia-related reactions need to be distinguished for appropriate treatment. Often, dysphoria is associated with an excessive dose or intolerance of opioids and thus, may be treated with sedation or reversal of opioid therapy. If dysphoria resolves but pain is evident, the patient needs appropriate analgesia. This term is often improperly understood and often overlooked, chalking it up to the pet's behavior or stress.
Euphoria refers to the feeling of happiness or excitement, generally the opposite of dysphoria. Elation refers to the feeling of pride or joy. These are not commonly used terms in veterinary medicine.
Allodynia is the perception of pain from typically non-painful stimuli.
NEW QUESTION # 221
Horses can be dangerous to work with, partly because of their normal behaviors and flight response, prey species mentality, and sheer size and strength. However, when approached carefully and confidently, they can be easily and safely restrained for evaluation.
Which of the following is inappropriate when discussing approaching and restraining an equine patient?
- A. Move slowly and deliberately, and do not chase if the horse turns away from you
- B. Never stand directly in front of a horse
- C. Always approach a horse from the front but slightly to the side
- D. Hold the head above the withers
Answer: D
Explanation:
Horses are a prey species. They are nervous, untrusting, and flighty by nature. When scared, they may simply flee. However, others may strike, rear, bite, or kick, and do so without warning. Being alert when working with horses helps your chances of remaining free of injury. Monitor a horse's body language for cues signaling that they are fearful.
Always approach a horse from the front but slightly offside and to the left; most horses are handled on the left and familiar with this. Always move slowly and with purpose, but without sudden jerking movements or changes in direction. Softly talk to the horse. If you must approach the horse from the rear, speak to them before you reach them to prevent startling them; then, as soon as feasible, reach out from a safe distance and off to the side of the hind end and place a gentle hand on the horse, so they know that you are there.
Once restraining the horse, do not stand directly in front of them. Like with prey species in general, a horse's eyes are positioned farther apart than predators. Thus, they cannot see you completely when you stand directly in front of them. Additionally, you want to be out of the way if the horse rears, and far enough to the side that you are safely out of the way if they kick out.
When holding the head, you want to keep it at the level of the withers, not above. If you give them their head, they have the advantage and could flee much easier.
Regardless of how you approach, where you stand, or how you hold the head, avoid blind spots. Additionally, try to always keep one hand in contact with the horse if feasible. This allows the animal to know where you are at all times and may help you identify if and when the animal will move suddenly.
NEW QUESTION # 222
What is bile?
- A. The alkaline fluid secreted by the liver that aids in food digestion
- B. The fluid portion of blood not containing cells or clotting proteins
- C. The enzyme responsible for the digestion of lactose
- D. The first milk produced within 24 to 48 hours after birth
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 223
What rule of thumb can be used to guesstimate the endotracheal tube size needed for dogs?
- A. 20 kg dog receives 9.5 to 10 mm tube. Size increases or decreases by 1 mm for each 5-kg above and below 20 kg
- B. 5 kg dog receives 7.5 to 8 mm tube. Size increases or decreases by 1 mm for each 5-kg above and below 5 kg.
- C. 10 kg dog receives 9.5 to 10 mm tube. Size increases or decreases by 1 mm for each 5-kg above and below 10 kg.
- D. 25 kg dog receives 9.5 to 10 mm tube. Size increases or decreases by 1 mm for each 5-kg above and below 25 kg.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A general rule of thumb is that patients at ideal body weight, not exceptionally small or large, and non-brachycephalic breeds use 20 kg as the starting point. A 20 kg dog usually needs a 9.5 to 10 mm tube. For each 5 kg above and below that weight range, you go up or down in 1 mm increments.
Thus, a 10 kg patient would likely need between a 7.5 and 8 mm tube, while a 25 kg patient would require a 10.5 to 11 mm tube.
NEW QUESTION # 224
Which of the following is not a common positioning tip for abdominal radiographs in small animals?
- A. Expose during the expiratory pause
- B. Include the thoracic inlet and just caudal to the 13th rib
- C. Sternum and the spine parallel to the x-ray table on lateral radiographs
- D. Spine and sternum superimposed on VD view
Answer: B
Explanation:
We do not generally need to include the thoracic inlet to the 13th rib for abdominal radiographs. These landmarks describe the borders needed to take a good quality chest film. Instead, for abdominal radiographs, our proximal border should include areas right cranial to the xiphoid process and caudally, just caudal to the greater trochanters.
All other choices are correct when properly positioning for abdominal radiographs.
NEW QUESTION # 225
Which term describes a contrast radiographic study of the spinal canal?
- A. Retrograde cystogram
- B. Excretory urogram
- C. Myelogram
- D. Fistulogram
Answer: C
Explanation:
All of the following procedures are radiographic studies using water-soluble organic iodide contrast agents.
*Myelogram (myelography): Injected into the spinal canal to demonstrate the distribution of spinal fluid.
*Fistulogram: Injected into a fistula or draining tract to identify its course.
*Retrograde cystogram: Infused into the urinary bladder through an indwelling urinary catheter. Typically combined with air to produce a double contrast study. Used to demonstrate stones, masses, or tears of the urinary bladder.
*Excretory urogram: Injected into a vein and excreted by the kidneys into the urinary bladder. Highlights the kidneys, ureters, and urinary bladder.
NEW QUESTION # 226
Which term describes a radiographic artifact?
- A. Summation
- B. Rectification
- C. Attenuation
- D. Ionization
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 227
A stray dog is brought in by a good samaritan with respiratory distress and neurologic signs. We are concerned the dog may have distemper. He looks cachectic, and the people say they have seen him around on and off for a few years. They do not know of any owner. This was the first time they could get near him to even bring him to a vet because he was so debilitated.
What increases a dog's chance of contracting the distemper virus?
- A. Getting a blood transfusion
- B. Exposure to an indoor-outdoor cat
- C. Exposure to wildlife
- D. An adult dog with multiple previous distemper virus vaccines (DHPP) is a few months late with the booster
Answer: C
Explanation:
Exposure to wildlife can increase a dog's chance of contracting the distemper virus. Distemper is most commonly associated with domestic canines, but it may also affect other species. Distemper may be carried and spread by wild animals in the families Canidae, Mustelidae, Mephitidae, Hyaenidae, Ailuridae, Procyonidae, and Pinnipedia. The mode of transmission for canine distemper is the inhalation of the airborne virus or contact with urine, feces, or mucosal secretions.
Blood purchased from a blood bank is screened for various diseases and is unlikely to have the distemper virus.
An adult dog with multiple previous distemper virus vaccines (DHPP) a few months late with the booster will not increase the risk of disease. Distemper and parvovirus vaccinations have been shown with repeat bolstering, to last potentially well beyond the three-year booster window. Thus, being a few days or months late is only a theoretical concern.
Exposure to an indoor-outdoor cat will not increase a dog's risk of distemper. Distemper isn't transmissible to felids.
Note that distemper patients can mimic those with rabies, and vice versa, especially depending on what phase of rabies' clinical course manifests on presentation. Thus, even though one suspects distemper, all precautions should be taken and it should be treated as if the dog has rabies until proven otherwise.
NEW QUESTION # 228
Which medication is effective in the management of moderate levels of pain?
- A. Butorphanol
- B. Ketamine
- C. Meloxicam
- D. Buprenorphine
Answer: D
Explanation:
Buprenorphine is a partial mu agonist which provides mild to moderate pain relief for six to eight hours with typical dosing.
NSAID medications, such as meloxicam, can treat low to moderate levels of pain associated with inflammation or prostaglandin production. Butorphanol is a mixed agonist-antagonist used to treat mild levels of pain of short duration and, more commonly, used for its sedative effects. Ketamine is a dissociative best used in conjunction with other analgesics to prevent wind-up (central-sensitization).
NEW QUESTION # 229
You assist in developing a pain management protocol for a group of small ruminants. In discussing an upcoming farm visit with the veterinarian, you discuss pain management options. You discuss the most commonly used form of analgesics in ruminants.
Which of the following is most widely used?
- A. Butorphanol
- B. Local analgesics
- C. Alpha2-agonists
- D. NSAIDs
Answer: B
Explanation:
All of the answer choices can be used in small ruminants. NSAIDs such as Banamine (flunixin meglumine) and bute (phenylbutazone), alpha2-agonists, and butorphanol can be used. However, when generalizing across all ruminants and recognizing that herd medicine plays a big role in pain management and overall cost concerns, local analgesics are the number one used modality for pain management.
The most common local analgesics used are lidocaine and bupivacaine. Various local techniques such as local field blocks, IV regional blocks, paravertebral blocks, and epidurals may be used.
NEW QUESTION # 230
What is one name for the state of unhappiness and anxiety that often occurs after pain medication wears off?
- A. Euphoria
- B. Dysphoria
- C. Allodynia
- D. Elation
Answer: B
Explanation:
In veterinary patients, dysphoric behaviors include anxiety, vocalization, restlessness, and, potentially, self-mutilation. They are frequently exhibited in the minutes following general anesthetic recovery and can last several hours. Dysphoria is not secondary to pain, and these two conditions need to be distinguished for appropriate treatment. Dysphoria is treated with sedation, while pain is treated with analgesia.
Euphoria refers to the feeling of happiness or excitement, generally the opposite of dysphoria. Elation refers to the feeling of pride or joy. These are not commonly used terms in veterinary medicine.
Allodynia is the perception of pain from typically non-painful stimuli.
Joanna M. Bassert, VMD. McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition. Pg 984.
Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians 5th Edition. Pg 500-501.
NEW QUESTION # 231
A veterinary technician can monitor a pet for behavior and determine a behavior modification plan for that pet and the owner. For example, an owner brings a dog into the clinic. The dog has started to lick itself on the forepaw anytime someone pets it, including two of the three family members. The dog has already seen the veterinarian, and no medical reason for the behavior has been determined. Thus, you are doing a behavior consult with the owner. You want to study what occurs right before and after the animal does the licking behavior. Your goal will be to teach the pet a different response to the stimulus causing the licking that will not cause harm to the pet. You establish a retraining plan based on the Applied Behavior Analysis (ABC) model of behavior. You will develop desirable motivators and outcomes that give the pet an alternative behavioral response.
What does the A stand for in this model?
- A. Acceptability
- B. Antecedent
- C. Association
- D. Analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the ABC behavior model, the A refers to an antecedent or the stimulus preceding an unwanted behavior. These may be location-based, contextual, or sensory, such as tactile, visual, or auditory. It could be any given item in the environment that is predictive. An example would be the cat carrier coming out, and the cat runs because every time they see the carrier, they are shoved into it and taken to a place where they get poked and prodded.
The B refers to behavior. This is the actual behavioral response the pet gives. In this example, someone pets the dog, and the dog starts licking their forepaw.
The C refers to consequence, which is what happens to the dog directly after the event. What does the owner do every time the dog starts licking? Does the owner give it affection/attention/a treat to dissuade it from doing so?
An example of an ABC is:
*Antecedent: Food on the counter
*Behavior: Dog jumps up and looks at the food on the counter
*Consequence: Dog is directed away from the counter
Once we have established the ABCs, we can develop a plan to adapt the pet's behavior to a more appropriate response and learn why the pet acts that way.
NEW QUESTION # 232
Which of the following is an example of blunt force trauma?
- A. Gunshot wound
- B. Biting an electrical cord
- C. Bite wound from another animal
- D. Falling from a balcony
Answer: D
Explanation:
Falling from a balcony is an example of blunt force trauma. Blunt force trauma is any injury resulting from significant impact sustained by the body.
A gunshot wound and a bite wound from another animal are examples of penetrating trauma.
Biting an electrical cord is dangerous, but is not an example of trauma.
Joanna M. Bassert, VMD. McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition. Pg 859.
Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians 5th Edition. Pg 578-579.
NEW QUESTION # 233
Due to underlying systemic disease, including primary advanced cardiac disease, in a dog requiring anesthesia, you are planning to induce with etomidate. The patient was premedicated with an opioid for pain management. Still, you want to minimize further respiratory compromise and do not want to compromise the cardiovascular system.
When administering this drug, all of the following can occur except:
- A. Hemolysis
- B. Phlebitis
- C. Increases intraocular pressure
- D. Decreases intracranial pressure
Answer: C
Explanation:
Etomidate is a short-acting, sedative-hypnotic induction agent in dogs and cats. It is reserved for animals with moderate to severe cardiopulmonary dysfunction, as it is sparing to both systems. Its safety index is wider than that of propofol.
*In addition to minimal changes to the cardiopulmonary systems, it can be beneficial in patients with shock.
*While it does cross the placental barrier, effects are minimal with rapid clearance.
*It decreases both intracranial and intraocular pressures.
*It can be administered as a single dose or, similarly to propofol, can be given as a continuous infusion.
However, cost and adverse effects have limited its use in veterinary medicine.
Side effects and key information include:
*Vomiting (even diarrhea)
*May cause apnea at induction though less commonly than with propofol
*Muscle movement
*Can cause excitement upon induction or recovery
*Sneezing
*Suppression of adrenocortical function for two to three hours
*IV injections may be painful
*IV injections may cause phlebitis
*Rapid injection, as well as repeated doses, could trigger hemolysis
*If administered through an active IV fluid line, one can decrease the risk of hemolysis and reduce pain
*It is not used in horses or cattle due to seizure induction or the production of excessive muscle rigidity
*No analgesic properties
NEW QUESTION # 234
Aspirin is generally used for its ability to reduce fever, pain, and inflammation. What is another reason aspirin is used in veterinary medicine?
- A. To reduce clot formation
- B. To obtain a mild diuretic effect
- C. To reabsorb sodium
- D. To dilate arteries and veins
Answer: A
Explanation:
Aspirin is occasionally used in veterinary medicine to reduce the risk of future clot formation. Some have used it as an adjunctive treatment in immune-mediated hemolytic anemia or similar diseases, or to prevent thrombi in heart disease. However, clopidogrel is more commonly used in small animals for safety reasons. Few studies exist in support of anticoagulants in animals to date.
Aspirin does not have significant therapeutic effects on diuresis, sodium reabsorption, or vasodilation.
Note: Aspirin or other NSAIDs should never be used concurrently with steroids in animals due to severe GI ulceration risks. Additionally, cats have slow aspirin metabolism and it should be used with caution in this species.
NEW QUESTION # 235
All of the following are potential physiologic consequences of hypothermia except:
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Poor perfusion
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Decreased mentation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 236
A relatively new horse owner has never had to travel with her horse before, but they will be moving in six months when her husband is transferred to a different military post. She is inquiring about interstate travel health certificate requirements.
To issue this health certificate, what must she do within 6-12 months of travel?
- A. Vaccinate for Equine Herpes Virus
- B. Obtain a Coggins test
- C. Vaccinate for equine influenza virus
- D. Obtain an Extended Equine Certificate of Veterinary Inspection (eeCVI)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Requirements are dictated depending on the purpose of travel (e.g., going to a horse show or competition vs. traveling from one stable to another). These requirements may also vary from state to state. However, all 50 states require a negative Coggins test within 6-12 months of travel. This tests for equine infectious anemia, a persistent viral disease of horses transmitted by biting flies (tabinids). Many horses are asymptomatic carriers and can easily spread the disease unknowingly. To be issued an interstate health certificate or for any international travel, horses are required to have a Coggins test. The blood sample must be drawn from a USDA-accredited veterinarian and submitted to the proper testing laboratory. Even when not traveling, horses should be tested annually. Any infected horses (positive tests, clinical or not) must be quarantined for life > 200 yards from any other equine or euthanized.
Other requirements for travel include a valid physical exam and, depending on where the animal will be going and for what purpose, certain vaccinations may be required, e.g., equine influenza and equine herpes virus vaccinations.
Some states offer an Extended Equine Certificate of Veterinary Inspection (eeCVI) that meets interstate health needs. This remains valid for six months. It permits the animal to travel to multiple locations during that six months without having to issue a new health certificate each time. Instead, the owner enters any new information before each travel.
NEW QUESTION # 237
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